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It could be suggested that the constant increase in the incidence of type 1 diabetes could be linked to the combination of changes in the recommendations of vitamin D supplementation, and compliance in giving the supplementation to the infants. During the decades that incidence of type 1 diabetes has been increasing, the dose recommendation has been reduced (in steps) to a tenth of the original level. At the same time, there is some evidence of reduced compliance in giving vitamin D supplementation and re-occurrence of severe vitamin D deficiency i.e. rickets.   

How would you study the covariation in the temporal changes of vitamin D intake and incidence of type 1 diabetes?

What makes a reliable evaluation of such associations difficult?