"Yes, since it was not Zeus that published me that edict, and since not of that kind are the laws which Justice who dwells with the gods below established among men. Nor did I think that your decrees were of such force, that a mortal could override the unwritten [455] and unfailing statutes given us by the gods ."
There are also various other occurrences of the same sort of thing ("God" in place of "Zeus", "the gods", or the like) elsewhere in the Fitts & Fitzgerald translation.
Does Fitts & Fitzgerald's choice of wording make the play more "up-to-date"? Does it produce something that a modern audience could more directly relate to? Or does their choice of wording produce something that a modern audience would almost automatically reject as out of place in a fifth century BCE Greek work?
Also, another area to consider is how a modern critic's choice of translation may affect his or her overall interpretation of the play. In this connection, you might wish to consider Harris & Platzner's analysis (pp. 642-648) and Grant's (pp. 211-221).
Several translations of Antigone are available online. Most of these use "Zeus", etc. in the particular passage under consideration.
One such translation is that by Richard C. Jebb, already cited from Perseus (link is directly to Antigone's speech). Unfortunately, the Perseus site can sometimes be a bit slow, and you might therefore wish to try a link to a different, more archaic version of Jebb's translation (with forms such as "thou" for "you" and "thy" for "your").
Besides Jebb's translation, the same overall handling of the passage in question can be found in translations by the following:
On the other hand, there is at least some use of "God" in one online version, viz., that by E. H. Plumptre (lines 493ff.).